RPSC(Rajasthan Public Service Commission) has dispatched the admit cards for candidates appearing for RAS Pre Examination which is scheduled on 29 September 2010. This time RPSC included Block levels Examination centers also to facilitates the candidates. Admit cards will reach all candidates by next week as RPSC started dispatch of admit cards on 18 September.
You can also check admit cards detail and examination center by name or Bar Code.

http://rpsc.gov.in/Exams/ras_detail/Name_wise.asp


If you did not get RAS Exam 2010 admit card then you have to collect it by self from RPSC Ajmer office which have setup a control room from 27 sept onwards to help RAS Aspirants.
For more information please go though below RPSC Website link which have some notification regarding this.
http://rpsc.gov.in/PNV-ras10-210910.pdf

RPSC invites application on OMR Application Forms for following Jobs vacancies of Lecturers :
Job Type: Lecturers (Vyakhyata)
Total Post: 457 posts in various subjects in Colleges in Rajasthan,
Pay Scale : PB-3 Rs. 15600-39100 Grade Pay Rs.6000/-,
Age : 21-35 years
OMR Application Form : OMR Application Form and brochure can be collected from at the cost of Rs.250/- (Rs.150/- for OBC of non-creamy layer, Rs.50/- for SC/ST)
How to Apply : OMR Application forms should be send by Registered post / Speed post or in person at RPSC on or before 02/11/2010.
For more detail visit: http://rpsc.gov.in/College_Edu_Vistrit-210910.pdf
For More jobs visit: http://www.jobkhabar.com/

RPSC(Rajasthan Public Service Commission) has dispatched the admit cards for candidates appearing for RAS Pre Examination which is scheduled on 29 September 2010. This time RPSC included Block levels Examination centers also to facilitates the candidates. Admit cards will reach all candidates by next week as RPSC started dispatch of admit cards on 18 September.

You can also check admit cards detail and examination center by name or Bar Code.

RAS Pre 2010 Examination Admit cards detail by Name

RAS Pre 2010 Examination Admit cards detail by Roll no

Hindi Niband websites and Hindi Niband materail can be avail from below mentioned websites as these are some of top websites on internet for Hindi Subject:


http://www.abhivyakti-hindi.org/snibandh/index.htm

http://www.hindinest.com/nibandh/index.htm

UPSC's IAS General Studies last 20 years Papers can be downloaded and view at below link:

IAS General Studies last 20 years Papers

Chief minister Ashok Gehlot, who also holds the finance portfolio presents state's budget for the financial year 2010-2011 in the Rajasthan assembly. Presenting the budget for the second time in his second tenure

Rajasthan Budget 2010-11 Highlights

Rajasthan Budget 2010-11 in Hindi

Rajasthan Budget 2010-11 in English

1. Which of the following administrative thinkers has defined administration as "the organization and direction of human and material resources to achieve desired ends" ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) J. M. Pfiffner
(C) J. A. Veig
(D) H. A. Simon
Ans : (B)

2. Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of New Public Management ?
(A) It has market orientation
(B) It upholds public interest
(C) It advocates managerial autonomy
(D) It focuses on performance appraisal
Ans : (B)

3. 'Good Governance' and 'Participating Civil Society for Development' were stressed in World Bank Report of—
(A) 1992
(B) 1997
(C) 2000
(D) 2003
Ans : (A)

4. If the administrative authority within a department is vested in a single individual, then that system is known as—
(A) Board
(B) Bureau
(C) Commission
(D) Council
Ans : (B)

5. Globalisation means—
(A) Financial market system is centered in a single state
(B) The growth of a single unified world market
(C) Geographical location of a firm is of utmost importance
(D) Foreign capitalist transactions
Ans : (B)

6. By whom was the 'Managerial Grid' developed ?
(A) Blake and White
(B) Blake and Schmidt
(C) Blake and Mouton
(D) Mouton and Shophan
Ans : (C)

7. Who among the following says that public administration includes the operations of only the executive branch of government ?
(A) L. D. White and Luther Gulick
(B) L. D. White
(C) Luther Gulick
(D) W. F. Willoughby
Ans : (C)

8. The concept of the 'zone of indifference' is associated with—
(A) Decision-Making
(B) Leadership
(C) Authority
(D) Motivation
Ans : (C)

9. Who has analysed the leadership in terms of 'circular response' ?
(A) C. I. Barnard
(B) M. P. Follett
(C) Millet
(D) Taylor
Ans : (B)

10. Simon proposed a new concept of administration based on the methodology of—
(A) Decision-making
(B) Bounded rationality
(C) Logical positivism
(D) Satisfying
Ans : (C)

11. Who wrote the book 'Towards A New Public Administration : The Minnowbrook Perspective' ?
(A) Frank Marini
(B) Dwight Waldo
(C) C. J. Charlesworth
(D) J. M. Pfiffner
Ans : (A)

12. Who rejected the principles of administration as 'myths' and 'proverbs' ?
(A) W. F. Willoughby
(B) Herbert Simon
(C) Chester Barnard
(D) L. D. White
Ans : (B)

13. The classical theory of administration is also known as the—
(A) Historical theory
(B) Mechanistic theory
(C) Locational theory
(D) Human Relations theory
Ans : (B)

14. How many principles of organization were propounded by Henry Fayol ?
(A) 10
(B) 14
(C) 5
(D) 9
Ans : (B)

15. Simon was positively influenced by ideas of—
(A) Terry
(B) Barnard
(C) L. D. White
(D) Henry Fayol
Ans : (B)

16. Negative motivation is based on—
(A) Fear
(B) Reward
(C) Money
(D) Status
Ans : (A)

17. 'Job loading' means—
(A) Shifting of an employee from one job to another
(B) Deliberate upgrading of responsibility, scope and challenge
(C) Making the job more interesting
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

18. The theory of 'Prismatic Society' in Public Administration is based on—
(A) Study of public services in developed and developing countries
(B) Institutional comparision of public administration in developed countries
(C) Structural-functional analysis of public administration in developing countries
(D) Historical studies of public administration in different societies
Ans : (C)

19. Who among the following is an odd thinker ?
(A) Taylor
(B) Maslow
(C) Herzberg
(D) Likert
Ans : (A)

20. Which of the following is not included in 'hygiene' factors in the Herzberg's two-factor theory of motivation ?
(A) Salary
(B) Working conditions
(C) Company's policy
(D) Responsibility
Ans : (D)

21. The 'Gang-Plank' refers to—
(A) Discipline
(B) Initiative
(C) Equity
(D) Level jumping
Ans : (D)

22. The history of evolution of the Public Administration is generally divided into—
(A) Three phases
(B) Four phases
(C) Five phases
(D) Six phases
Ans : (C)

23. Henry Fayol's General theory of Administration is applicable at—
(A) Policy management level
(B) Top management level
(C) Middle management level
(D) Workshop management level
Ans : (B)

24. F. W. Taylor, the founding father of Scientific Management movement propounded the theory which was conceived to be a scientific methodology of—
(A) Careful observation
(B) Measurement
(C) Generalisation
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

25. In which of the following are public and private administrations not common ?
(A) Filing
(B) Managerial techniques
(C) Scope and complexity
(D) Accounting
Ans : (C)

Sometimes, we work really hard studying our lessons but still, we only get an average result. In order to perform best in your examinations, there should be a lot of preparation. The amount of preparation will determine how confident you will be when taking your exams. Different people have different strategies on their exam preparations. Some people only studies moments before the test, while others study months before it. No matter which way suits for you, you have to make sure that you do it effectively.
The best way of studying is the willingness to learn. When one has the amount of determination and interest with the given subject, he will be eager in studying it. For example, if we do not like a math subject perhaps, we will always have low grades on it. Why? Because we do not find it interesting, and that is why we just take it for granted. Remember that if you take time to learn something you do not like, you will find interest from it after some time. If you are willing to study it and offer more time for that certain subject, you will not find difficulty when taking an exam.
The best technique some students do when they need to prepare for examinations is to study it from the time it was discussed in class. This means that the moment it has been taught, always think of it and remember the details. It will be best if you study all the week’s lessons every end of the week. Do that habit each passing week so you are stocking knowledge into your mind one at a time. People who studies only before the exam will find a lot of difficulty because they are cramming all the lessons and try recalling them all at once. This can really stress the mind, and you even might find difficulty trying to remember them all.
But study them week after week; it will be just an exercise for you. Just like when we have a new regular task. For example, if we are told to do the groceries every week, we need to do it once a week and for the coming weeks. Each week, if we come to that particular day of doing the grocery, we do not have to remember it, because it is already programmed in our minds that there s a task we should do, and it is doing the grocery. If you put to your mind a task and decide to do it every specific time, then you do not have to stress it out when doing it.

The government will soon come out with a detailed syllabus of the Civil Services Aptitude Test (CSAT) — a new scheme of examination, which is to replace the existing Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination from 2011. The test is meant for shortlisting candidates for the CS (Main) Examination, being conducted every year to recruit officers in IAS, IFS, IPS and other elite central services.
The Centre had in March approved the proposal for introduction of CSAT in place of CS (Preliminary) from next year, and subsequently asked the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) to work out its syllabus

1. ‘Project Arrow’ is concerned with the modernization of which of the following?
(A) Airports

(B) Post offices

(C) Road Transport

(D) Railways

2. The city which was selected by a famous International Magazine “Travel and Leisure” in its survey 20th as the best city from tourism point of view in the world is?

(A) Udaipur

(B) Hong Kong

(C) Singapore

(D) Dubai

3. Football World Cup 2010 is being held in?

(A) Britain

(B) Germany

(C) Portugal

(D) South Africa

4. The mascot of the 19th Common wealth Games, to be held in New Delhi is?—

(A)Bhaloo

(B) Cheetah

(C)Oiital

(D) Shera

5. Commonwealth Games are scheduled to take place in New

Delhi, India in 2010. Which location has been chosen for the next Commonwealth Games in 2014?

(A) Brisbane — Australia

(B) Victoria .— Canada

(C) Auckland — New Zealand

(D) Glasgow — Scotland

6. 2016 Olympic Games will be held at?

(A) Chicago

(B) Madrid

(C) Rio de Janeiro

(D) Tokyo

7. Which of the following leguminous plant is also a petro-plant?

(A) Pigeon-pea

(B) Pea

(C)Gram

(D) Pongam

8. If an apple is released from orbiting spaceship, it will?

(A) Fall towards the Earth

(B) Move at a lower speed

(C) Move along with the space ship at the same speed

(D) Move at a higher speed

9. The atmosphere exerts enormous pressure on us. But, we do not feel it because?

(A) Our blood exerts a pressure slightly more than that of the atmosphere

(B) We are used to it

(C) Our bones are very strong and can withstand the pressure

(D) The surface area of our head is very small

10. In which of the following industries is mica used as a raw material?

(A) Iron and Steel

(B) Toys

(C) Glass and Pottery

(D) Electrical

11. The micro-organism which is associated with the production of Bt cotton is a?

(A) Fungus

(B) Bacterium

(C) Blue green Algae

(D) Virus

12. Computer virus is a?

(A) Fungus

(B) Bacterium

(C) Mineral

(D) Software program

13Awacs is a /an

(A) American Cryogenic Rocket

(B) Anti tank missile

(C) Israel developed Falcon for Air Force

(D) Atomic submarine

14 Consider the following statements— Assertion (A) : Space Based Solar Power (SBSP), it is suggested be made a national goal.

Reason (R) : Supply of SBSP is 99% uninterrupted throughout the year, besides the enormity of energy availability.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

15.Hepatitis B is caused by ?

(A) Prolonged Starvation

(B) Protein Deficiency

(C) Bacterial Infection

(D) Viral Infection

16. Which one of the following is not properly matched?

(A) Gene splicing and recombinant DNA technology—Genetic Engineering

(B) A diagnostic test that detect the presence or absence of genetic disorders in unborn child—Amniocentesis

(C) A process by which living organisms break down complex matter into simpler onstituents—Biodegradation

(D) An inbuilt time-keeping system in all organisms—Bio-mass

17. Salk’s vaccine is connected with which one of the following diseases?

(A) Small pox

(B) Titanus

(C)TB.

(D) Polio

18. Which one of the following statements is not true for a person suffering from hypermetropia?

(A) The person can see far objects distinctly.

(B) The focal length of the lens is large

(C) The image of the closeobjects is focused behind the retina

(D) A concave lens is used to correct this defect

19. ‘Endoscope’ used by Doctors for examining the inside of the patient’s stomach works on the principle of?

(A) Reflection of light

(B) Dispersion of light

(C) Total internal reflection of light

(D) Refraction of light

20. Consider the following statements—

Assertion (A) : If Ice collects on the freezer the cooling in the refrigerator is affected adversely.

Reason (R): Ice is a poor conductor of heat.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of(A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true. but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

21.What type of electromagnetic radiation is used in the remote control of a television?

(A) Infrared

(B) Ultraviolet

(C) Visible

(D) None of these

22 Sand contains and is made of ?

(A) Calcium

(B) SilicOn

(C) Aluminium

(D) Carbon

23 Which one of the followin2 compounds is used as a sedative?

(A) Potassium bromide

(B) Calcium chloride

(C) Ethyl alcohol

(D) Phosphorus trichloride

24. An enzyme which helps in the digestion of protein is?

(A)Urease

(B) Sulfatase

(C)Trypsin

(D) Protease

25. Methane is present in the atmosphere of?

(A)Moon

(B) Sun

(C)Jupiter

(D) Mars

26. Hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of?

(A) Controlled fusion reaction

(B) Uncontrolled fusion reaction

(C) Controlled fission reaction

(D) Uncontrolled fission reaction

27. In countries where polished rice is the mean cereal in their diet, people suffer from?

(A)Pellagra

(B) Beri-beri

(C)Scurvy

(D) Osteomalacia

28. Which one of the following silver salts is used for producing artificial rains?

(A) Silver chloride

(B) Silver bromide

(C) Silver nitrate

(D) Silver iodide

29. The hypo solution used in photography is the aqueous solution of?

(A) Sodium thiosulphate

(B) Sodium tetrathionate

(C) Sodium sulphate

(D) Ammonium para sulphate

30 Accumulation of which one of the following in the muscles leads to fatigue?

(A) Lactic acid

(B) Benzoic acid

(C) Pyruvic add

(D) Uric acid

31. Which one of the following had supported the Non-cooperation movement, but could not see its upshots?

(A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

(B) Lala Lajpat Rai

(C) Motilal Nehru

(D) Chitranjan Das

32. Which of the following is a substance abundantly available in the sea and administered in a certain deficiency disease?

(A) Iron

(B) Vitamin A

(C) Fluorine

(D) Iodine

Answers:
1 B
2 A
3 D
4 D
5 D
6 C
7 D
8 C
9 A
10 D
11 B
12 D
13 C
14 A
15 D
16 D
17 D
18 D
19 C
20 A
21 A
22 B
23 A
24 C
25 C
26 B
27 B
28 D
29 A
30 A
31 A
32 D

1.Keynesian Liquidity Preference theory explains
the:
(a) operation of the money market in an economy.
(I interaction between the real and monetary sectors.
(c) motivation of a speculator.
(d) process of adjustment in money and capital markets for bringing about changes in the interest rate.

Ans: a

Q.2. Which one of the following conditions is assumed by Euler in his adding up theorem?
Elasticity of substitution is:
(a) equalto zero.
(b) greater than zero but less than one.
(c) greater than one.

Ans: b

Q. 3. The cars used by the police department of the government for patrolling should be treated as:
(a) final goods because these are sold by business sector to government.
(b) consumers goods because these are not re- sold by the government.
(c) capital goods because these add to the capital formation in the country.
(d) intermediate goods because police services are consumed through the use of these cars.

Ans: d

Q.4 Which one of the following consumption functions corresponds to the income multiplier, R= 4?
(a) C=24+0.5 Y
(b) C=240+0.25Y
(c) C= 24+ 0.55Y
(d) C = 240 + 0.75Y
Ans: d

5. Given that
GNP at market prices = Rs. l92866 crores
Consumption of fixed capital = Rs. 13371 crqres
Net factor income from abroad = Rs-975 crores
the NDP at market prices will be:
(a)Rs. 178520 crores
(b) Rs. 207212 crores
(c)Rs. 180470 Crores
(d) Rs. 205262 crores
Ans: a

6. In the theory of investment decision the most appropriate Internal Rate of Return (IRR) is the one which makes the:
(a) net present value, the maximum.
(b) gross present value, the maximum.
(c) net present value, zero.
(d) gross present value, zero.

Ans: c

Q. 7. In Keynes General Theory, investment and savings are brought to equality primarily through changes in the:
(a) rate of interest.
(b) income velocity of money.
(c) national income
(d). level of prices.

Ans: c

Q. 8 During a recession, consumers typically react to falling incomes by:
(a) increasing the fraction of consumption devoted to durable goods.
(b) reducing the fraction of durables quickly before incomes fall further.
(c) reducing the worn-out durables quickly before incomes goods.
(d) reducing the fraction of non-durables and services more quickly than purchases of durables.
Ans: b

Q. 9. Consider the following statements:
1. Points to the left of the IS curve indicate excess supply of goods.
2. Points to the right of the LM curve indicate excess demand for money.
3. ?oints to the right of the IS curve indicate excess supply of money.
4.. Points to the right of the IS curve indicate excess supply of goods.
Of these statements
(a)2 and 4 are correct
(b)1 and 3 are correct
(c)2 and 3 are correct
(d)1, 2 and 3 are correct

Ans: a

Q.10 . Suppose, MPC falls. The IS curve shifts to the left. Then what happens ceteris paribus?
(a) The level of equilibrium becomes lower
(b) The level of equilibrium becomes higher
(c) There is no change in equilibrium
(d) Only the rate of interest becomes lower

Ans: a

Q 11. The author of employment multiplier is:
(a) Lord Beveridge
(c) R. V Kahn
(b) J. M . Keynes
(d) J.R. Hicks
Ans: c

Q. 12 In a two sector economy, the saving and investment functions are as follows:
S=—10+0.2Y
I= —3+0.1 Y
What will be the equilibrium level of income?
(a) 70
(b) 80
(c) 90
(d) 100

Ans: a

Q. 13 The IS-LM model has been formulated by:
(a) J.R. Hicks
(b) E Modigliani
(c)P.A. Samuelson
(d) J.M. Keynes
Ans: a

Directions
The following item consist of two statements, one labelled the Assertion (A) and the other labelled the Reason (R,). You are to exam inc these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
Select your answer to these using the codes given below

Q. 14. Assertion (A): The level of employment in an economy, according of Keynes, is a function of GNP.
Reason (R): GNP is determined by aggregate demand, which in turn depends upon consumption of the households and investment decisions of business.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true But R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

Ans: a

Q. 15. Which one of the following structural changes in the composition of National Income of India would characterize economic development?
(a) A large proportion of income from agriculture relative to other sectors.
(b) A small proportion of income from the tertiary sector compared to that from agriculture.
(c) A larger proportion of income from industry as compared to that from agriculture.
(d) A smaller portion of income from industry as compared to that from the tertiary sector.
Ans: b

Q. 16. Which of the following methods were used by the conventional series in computing National Income in India?
1. Output method.
2. Expenditure method.
3. Income method.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) l and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1,2 and 3
Ans: b

Q. 17. Between 1951-52 and 1955-56 and 1985-86 and 1989-90, the share of agriculture in the GDP of India decreased from about 55% to about 33% and that of the tertiary sector increased from nearly 29% to 39%. This indicates that the
(a) productivity of land has been on the decline.
(b) the productivity of labour has been increasing.
(c) secondary sector has done much better than the primary and tertiary sectors.
(d) output of tangible commodities has not been increasing as fast as the GDP.

Ans: d

Q. 18 What is the correct sequence of the following?

1. Marrohkesh Declaration.
2. Smithsonian Agreement.
3. Keynes Plan.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a)1,2,3
(b)2,3,1
(c)3,2,1
(d)3,1,2

Ans: c

Q. 19. The following economists are associated with the “Exploitation Dependency Theory”:
1. Paul Baran
2. A.G. Frank
3. S. Amin ‘
4. G. Palma
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of them?
(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 2,1,3,4
(c)2,1,4,3
(d) 1,2,4,3
Ans: b

Q 20. According to Hirschman, ‘convergent’ series comprises investment projects the appropriate more external economies then they create and ‘ divergent’ series comprises investment projects that create more external economies than what they appropriate.
In terms of this,investments in power and transport is: .
(a)convergent series.
(b)divergent series.
(c)respectively convergent and divergent series.
(d)both convergent series with diminishing returns.
Ans: b

Q. 21 According to neoclassical theory of distribution, constancy of wage share, in national income would come about only when elasticity of factor substitution:
(a) equals one.
(b) is greater than one.
(c) is less than one
(d) is zero.

Ans: a

Q. 22. The ‘Compensation criterion’ that state X is socially preferable to state Y, if those who gain from X can compensate the losers and still be in a better position than at Y has been proposed by:
(a) Bergson
(b) Pareto
(c) Kaldor
(d) Walras
Ans: c

Q. 23. According to Pigou, National Dividend will be the maximum when:
(a) marginal cost is minimized.
(b) net social marginal productivity is maximized.
(c) net private marginal productivity is maximized.
(d) net social marginal productivity becomes equal to net private marginal productivity.
Ans: d

Q. 24. A consequence of the Kaldor-Hicks compensation principle is that a change in the economic policy leads to an improvement in social welfare if the:
(a) gainers can compensate the losers for their loss and still remain better-off themselves than they were before.
(b) losers can profitably bribe the gainers to induce them to stay in the initial position.
(c) gainers can just compensate the losers out of their gains.
(d) Losers do not oppose the change.
Ans: a

Q. 25. Transfer payments by the government are not included in the net domestic product because:
(a) these are gifts from the government to the recipients.
(b) their opportunity cost is zero.
(c) such payments may not ‘ultimately reach the recipients.
(d) no corresponding production of goods and services has taken place to match the payment of such funds.
Ans: d

Q. 26. Liquidity preference refers to:
(a) the extent to which investors prefer to keep their assets in money.
(b) RB I’s shareholdings in other financial institutions.
(c) community’s preference for gold.
(d) community’s effective demand for capital goods.

Ans: a

Q. 27. Which of the following method(s) are used to
compute national income in India?
1. Net output method.
2. Net income method.
3. Expenditure method.
Select the correct. answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a)2 alone
(b) 1 and 2
(c)3 alone
(d) l,2 and 3
Ans: d

28. Assuming that
Change in investment I= 20
Marginal propensity to save (MPS)= 0.5
Marginal propensity to investment (MP) = 0.
The change in income Y will be equal to:
(a) 25
(b) 50
(c) 100
(d) 200
Ans: b

Q. 29. Consider the following statements
Intersection of the I—S and L—M Curves corresponds to:
1. equilibrium in the real sector.
2. equilibrium in the monetary sector.
3. liquidity trap necessarily
4. Walrasian general equilibrium.
Of these statements
(a) 1 and 3 are correct
(b) 1 and 2 are correct
(c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) 1,2,3. and 4 are correct
Ans: b

Q. 30. Consider the following statements
The study of national income accounts is of great importance because it:
1. reveals the changes in the size and composition of the national product.
2. provides us with information about the distribution of national income in the society among various groups.
3. reveals the manner in which national expenditure is divided between consumption and investment. Of these statements
(a)1 and 2 are correct
(b)2 and 3 are correct
(c)1 and 3 are correct
(d) 1,2 and 3 are correct

Ans: d

Q. 31. Consider the following types of income:
1. Personal income.
2. Private income.
3. Disposable income
4. National income
The correct sequence in descending order of their magnitude is:
(a) 4,2,1,3
(b) 4,2,3,1
(c) 2,4,3,1
(d) 2,4,1,3

Ans: a

Q. 32. Disposable personal income is:
(a) the sum of wages, salaries, commissions, bonuses and other forms of employee earnings before deduction of any taxes of social security contributions, net income from royalties and rentals, interest income and profits of a corporation, partnership of proprietorship.

(b) disposable income plus personal taxes; or current personal income receipts after deducting social security contributions but before deduction of personal taxes.

(c) a concept of receipts rather than a concept of earnings and is computed after taxes and social security contributions. One must add receipts that are not payments for current productive purposes and one must deduct all earnings not currently received and all taxes and social security contributions.

(d) the concept of individual’s income as the money value of his earnings from productive services currently rendered by him or by his property after deduction of personal taxes and social security contributions.

Ans: d

Q. 33. Given the total investment expenditure, an increase in the propensity to save will lead to a
(a) fall in the quantity of income.
(b) fall in income.
(c) rise in interest rate.
(d) rise in income.

Ans: d

Q. 34. The national income of a country for a given period is equal to the:
(a) total value of goods and services produced by the nationals
(b) sum of total consumption and investment expenditure.
(c) sum of personal income of all individuals.
(d) money value of final goods and services produced.
Ans: b

Q. 35. Gross National Sayings measure the
(a) amount of GNP not consumed.
(b) excess of income over consumption plus the net taxes.
(c) sum of retained earnings and depreciation amounts:
(d) excess of disposable income over consumption.

Ans: b

Q. 36. Social Accounting system in India is classified into which one of the following sets of sectors?
(a) Enterprise, households and government
(b) Assets, liabilities and debt position
(c) Public sector, private sector and joint sectors
(d) Income, product and expenditure
Ans: c

Q. 37. For a closed economy having no foreign trade which one of the following is correct?
(a) GDP= GNP
(b) GDP > GNP
(c) GDP
(d) GDP < or = GNP
Ans: a

Q. 38. According to the permanent income hypothesis. the
(a) long-run aggregate Average Propensity to Consume (APC) equals the long-run aggregate Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC)
(b) long-run aggregate APC is greater than the long- run aggregate MPC.
(c) long-run aggregate APC is less than the long-run aggregate MPC.
(d) APC of every individual is equal irrespective of different will be encouraged.
Ans: a

Q. 39. If there is an expectation of a rise in the price level, investment will be encouraged because:
(a) there will be an increased production of capital goods
(b) there will be arise in the prospective return from capital.
(c) the people save more and interest rate will fall.
(d) None of these
Ans: b
Q. 40 . Which of the following statements explain the difference between NNP
(Net National Product) and NMP. (Net Material Product)?
1. NNP includes services.
2. NNP excludes services.
3. NMP includes services.
4. NMP excludes services.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
Codes
(a) l and 4
(b) 2 and 4
(c)l and 3
(d) 2 and 3

Ans: a

Q. 41. According to Keynes, marginal propensity to consume:
(a) can never exceed unity.
(b) may exceed unity when dissaving occurs.
(c) can never exceed the average propensity to consume.
(d) is the reciprocal of the marginal propensity to save.

Ans: c

Q. 42. Super multiplier refers to:
(a) interaction of the mu1t and the accelerator.
(b) reciprocal of the marginal propensity to consume.
(c) capital output ratio
(d) budget multiplier.
Ans: a

Q. 43. In the liquidity preference theory of interest of Keynes nioney acts as a link between the present
and the future in the case of:
(a) transactions demand for money.
(b) precautionary demand for money
(e) business demand for money.
(d) speculative demand for money.
Ans: d

Q. 44 . In 1970-71 the NDP measured at the prices prevailing in that year, amounted to Rs. 34368 Crores. In 1976-77 while this NDP measured at the prices prevailing in that year amounted to Rs. 66561 crores, at 1970-71 prices it amounted to Rs. 40395 crores. The rise in real NDP is
(a) insignificant
(b) Rs. 6027 crores
(c) Rs.31193crores
(d) Rs. 66561 crores
Ans: b

Q. 45. Assertion (A): A rise in the aggregate demand and aggregate supply of goods and services raises national income.
Reason (R) : National income represents the value of aggregate. production in monetary terms.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A;
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: b

Q.46 Excess of ex-ante saving over ex-ante investment means that: -
(a) income will fall.
(b) income will rise.
(c) income will rise and inventories will remain the
same.
(d) price will rise and inventories will accumulate.

Ans: a

1. Which of the following Trophies/ cups is not associated with the game of football?
(A) Durand Cup
(B) Santosh Trophy
(C) Federation Cup
(D) Subroto Cup
(E) K. D. Singh Babu Trophy

Ans:E

2. Which of the following is the book written by V. S. Naipaul?
(A) Higher than Everest
(B) A Passage to England
(C) Affluent Society
(D) All my Yester Years
(E) A House for Mr. Biswas
Ans:E

3. The Govt. of India is planning to provide an identity card to each one of its citizen with his/her personal details and identity marks. Which of the following agencies/organization is going to implement this huge task ?
(A) Election Commission of India
(B) People Union for Civil Liberties
(C) Unique Identification Authority of India
(D) National Committee Science and Technology
(E) None of these
Ans:C

4. Who amongst the following is the present speaker of the Lok Sabha?
(A)Somnath Chaterjee
(B)Mamta Banerjee
(C)Manohar Joshi
(D)L. K. Advani
(E)None of these
Ans:E

5. Indian Govt. has decided in 2009 to upgrade its fleet of transport aircraft AN-32. This upgradation will be done by which of the following countries?
(A)France
(B) Ukraine
(C)Israel
(D) Egypt
(E)USA

Ans:B
6. Michael Jackson who died a few months back was a famous?
(A) Politician
(B) Pop Singer
(C) Tennis Player
(D) Author
(E) None of these

Ans:B

7. As per the reports in various newspapers the Govt. has allowed 2200 different types of items to come to India from Singapore as Duty Free imports. This is being done under which of the following agreements with Singapore?
(A) Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement
(B) Look East Policy of the Govt. of India
(C) Focus Africa Programme of India
(D) Own your cargo ship scheme of the Shipping Corporation of India Ltd. (SCIL)
(E) None of these
Ans:A

8. Oil and Natural Gas Commission Videsh Ltd. (OVL) is investing US $ 5 billion in production of gas from Farsi Blocks of Gas Deposits’. The Farsi Blocks are located in
(A)Russia
(B) Iran
(C)Kuwait
(D) UAE
(E) Egypt
Ans:B

9. Some special trains named as ‘Duronto’, were launched by rilways . Duronto Trains are in fact—
(A) super fast trains
(B) local or short distance trains
(C) extremely low fare trains
(D) trains running to connect Kolkata with rest of the West Bengal
(E) trains specially for people living below poverty line
Ans:A

10. Which of the following cannot be called a horticultural crop?
(A)Apple
(B) Coconut
(C)Moong
(D) Sunflower
(E) Leafy Vegetables
Ans:C

11. Sunil Mittal is CEO and chairman of?
(A) Mittal Steels
(B) Bharati Airtel
(C) Satyam Mahindra
(D) Touch Bionics
(E) None of these
Ans:B

12. As we all know now every child in the age group of 6—14 years can demand that he/she should be admitted to a school to complete his/her primary/basic education. Enactment of which of the following acts has made it possible?
(A) Right to Information Act
(B) Abolition of Child Labour Act
(C) Equal Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Full Participation Act
(D) Competition Act
(E) None of these
Ans:C

13. Who amongst the following won the Indira Gandhi Prize 2009 for Peace, Disarmament and Development?
(A)Aung San Suu Kyi
(B)Deep Joshi
(C)Bill Gates
(D)Sheikh Hasina
(E) None of these
Ans:D

14. Ricky Ponting is a famous cricketer from?
(A) New Zealand
(B) West Indies
(C) Australia
(D) England
(E) None of these
Ans:C

15. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Small is Beautiful’?
(A) Ben Okri
(B) Ernest Schumacher
(C) Dominique Lapierre
(D) Gunter Grass
(E) Sidney Sheldon

Ans:B

16. Which of the following awards is given by an Indian Organization ?
(A) Normon Borloug Award
(B) OSCAR Award
(C) Ramon Magsaysay Award
(D) Pulitzer Prize
(E) Man Booker Prize

Ans:A

17 . Which of the following schemes/ products were launched by the banks to provide instant loan facility to the farmers ?
(A) Kisan Credit Card
(B) Krishi Bima Yojana
(C) Crop Loan Scheme
(D) Corporate Loan Scheme
(E) None of these

Ans:A

18. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Hockey?
(A)Love
(B) Tee
(C)Spin
(D) No Ball
(E) Penalty Stroke
Ans:E

19. Which of the following crops need plenty of water to grow?
(A)Jawar
(B) Bajra
(C)Tea
(D) Paddy
(E) All of these
Ans:D

20. Insurance service provided by various banks is commonly known as?
(A) Investment Banking
(B) Risk Management
(C) Merchant Banking
(D) Bancassurance
(E) Micro Finance
Ans:D

21. Who amongst the following Indians is asoociated with Billiards ?
(A) Subroto Paul
(B) Pankaj Advani
(C) Parimarjan Negi
(D) Baichung Bhutia
(E) Vijender Singh
Ans:B

22. India is a member of which of the following organizations?
(A)ASEAN
(B) BRIC
(C)OPEC
(D) MERCOSUR
(E)NATO

Ans:B

23. Teacher’s Day is celebrated on?
(A) 15th September
(B) 10th September
(C) 5th September
(D) 15th October
(E) 10th October

Ans:C

Hi, Friends Please find some of General Studies test Questions with answer for RAS Exam 2010.
1 China raised strong objection to the visit undertaken during November, 2009 by the Dalailama to?
(A) Gangtok
(B) Tawang
(C) Laddakh
(D) None of the above
Ans:B
2. A species is considered to be extinct only if it has not been seen in its natural habitat for the
last—
(A) 15 years
(B) 25 years
(C) 40 years
(D) 50 years
Ans:D
3. Chaurabari glacier is located towards
(A) South of Kedarnath Temple
(B) West of Kedarnath Temple
(C) North of Kedarnath Temple
(D) Fast of Kedarnath Temple
Ans:A
4. The Project Director of Chandra Yaan-2 is?
(A) C. Rangrajan
(B) A. P. J. Kalam
(C) P. Chidambaram
(D) Dr. M. Annadurai
Ans:D
5. Which river of Africa cuts the Tropic of Capricorn twice?
(A) Zambezi
(B) Limpopo
(C) Congo
(D) Niger
Ans:B
6.Beyant Shakhodhar Island is located near
(A)Kathiawar Coast
(B)Arabian sea coast
(C)Raan of Kutch
(D)Gulf of Cambay
Ans :A
7.Piram Island is located near
(A)Kathiawar Coast
(B)Arabian sea coast
(C)Raan of Kutch
(D)Gulf of Cambay
Ans :B
8. Diu Island are located near ?
(A)Kathiawar Coast
(B)Arabian sea coast
(C)Raan of Kutch
(D)Gulf of Cambay
Ans : D
9. Which one of the following lakes is the source of the Nile river?
(A) Nyasa
(B) Tanganyika
(C) Victoria
(D) Chad
Ans:C
10. The ideal habitat of the Siberian Crane is found in?
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Assam
(C) AndliraPradesh
(D) Orissa
Ans:B
11. Which one of the following is
correctly matched?
(A) Campos —Northern Brazil
(B) Llanos—Venezuela
(C) Pampas-Chile
(D) Selva—Southern Brazil
Ans:B
12.Kandla Port is Located in which state ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Orissa
(C)Tamil Nadu
(D)Gujarat
Ans : D
13.Nhava Shewa Port is Located in which state ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Orissa
(C)Tamil Nadu
(D)Andhra pradesh
Ans :A
14.Paradeep Port is Located in which state ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Orissa
(C)Kerala
(D)Gujarat
Ans :B
15.Tutricorin Port is Located in which state ?
(A) Kerala
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C)Tamil Nadu
(D)Gujarat
Ans :C
16. The first music college that was established for music education in U.P. is—
(A) Sangeet Natak Academy
(B) Bhatkhande Hindustani Sangeet Mahavidyalay
(C) Lalit Kala Academy
(D) Bhartendu Natya Academy
Ans:B
17. Which one of the following criteria for deciding an urban area, according to Census of India, is not correct ?
All places with—
(A) either a Municipality or Corporation or Cantonment or Notified Town Area Committee
(B) a minimum population of 5000
(C) at least 60% of male population engaged in non-agricultural pursuits
(D) a density of population of at least 400 persons per square km
Ans:C
18. ‘Trayi’ is a name for
(A) Three Vedas
(B) Dharma, Sangha and Buddha
(C) Three Gods in Hindu Pantheon
(D) Three seasons
Ans:A
19. The Government of India Act, 1935 was based on the report of ?
(A)Cabinet Mission
(B) Cripps Mission
(C)Rowlatt Commission
(D) Simon Commission
Ans:D
20. The rear view mirrors of auto mobiles are such as may produce?
(A) real and enlarged image
(B) real and diminished image
(C) virtual and enlarged image
(D) virtual and diminished image
Ans:D
21. The First University Chair of Sanskrit was founded in Europe in?
(A) England
(B) France
(C) Germany
(D) Russia
Ans:C
22. Which one of the following statements is not true?
(A) The foundation of the system of civil administration was firmly laid down by Warren Hastings on which the super structure was raised by Cornwallis
(B) Clive was responsible for reforming the East India Company’s Civil and Military Services
(C) Lord William Bentick was one of the greatest British rulers as he consolidated the British Empire in India
(D) Lord Dalhousie added rich territories to the British Empire on the basis of the Doctrine of Lapse
Ans:B
23. The Constitution provides for appointment of adhoc judges in the?
(A) Supreme Court of India
(B) High Courts
(C) District and Session Courts
(D) All of the above
Ans:A
24. Who among the following deserves the credit for the construction of ‘Lal Quila’?
(A) Sikandar Lodi
(B) Aurangzeb
(C) Jahangir
(D) Shahjahan
Ans:D
25. Who among the following had headed the group of advocates to argue the case on behalf of The Indian National Army in the Red Fort trials?
(A) Bhulabhai Desai
(B) Kailash Nath Katju
(C) Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans:A
26. The famous I.N.A. trials took place in the Red Fort, Delhi in?
(A)1945
(B) 1936
(C)1924
(D) 1917
Ans:A
27. The man first landed on the moon in?
(A) 1969
(B) 1968
(C)1970
(D) 1958
Ans:A
28. Among the Given options, Two major producers of sugar cane are?
(A)Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
(B)Maharashtra and Gujarat
(C)Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu
(D) Tamil Nadu and Karnataka
Ans :C
29. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(A) Bihar : Least literate State of the country
(B) Punjab : State with lowest sex ratio in India
(C) Uttar Pradesh : State having highest percentage of country’s population
(D) West Bengal : State with highest density of population in
the country
Ans:B
30. Which one of the following reservoirs is associated with the
Rihand Project?
(A)Gandhi Sagar
(B) Govind Ballabh Pant Sagar
(C) Jawahar Sagar
(D) Govind Sagar
Ans:B